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Did Jesus speak in tongues?

 
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Post Did Jesus speak in tongues? mytimewillcome
What say ye?

Scholar/author Robert P. Menzies in Speaking in Tongues suggests Luke 10:21 is an example.
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3/20/16 5:58 pm


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Post Cojak
What would have been the need? Didn't he have a hot line?

Seemed to be speaking on that hot line. Maybe I am missing something, I will stick around and find out. Confused Smile
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3/20/16 7:16 pm


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Post mytimewillcome
Cojak wrote:
What would have been the need? Didn't he have a hot line?

Seemed to be speaking on that hot line. Maybe I am missing something, I will stick around and find out. Confused Smile


Then why would he pray to God?

It is a wonderful example of the Trinity if Jesus spoke in tongues.

He did the will of the Father and had the gifts of the Spirit. The Spirit was then left in His stead.

Why do we pray in tongues if we, like Jesus, have a hot line as well?
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3/20/16 8:04 pm


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Post Quiet Wyatt
While I would be very happy to find that Jesus spoke in tongues, I'm scratching my head trying to see tongues in Luke 10:21. [Insert Acts Pun Here]
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3/20/16 9:48 pm


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Post Old Time Country Preacher
Quiet Wyatt wrote:
While I would be very happy to find that Jesus spoke in tongues, I'm scratching my head trying to see tongues in Luke 10:21.


Scratch no more, Wyatt. It aint there.
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3/20/16 10:16 pm


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Post QW maqqebet
Quiet Wyatt wrote:
While I would be very happy to find that Jesus spoke in tongues, I'm scratching my head trying to see tongues in Luke 10:21.


I am guessing because the passage states Jesus "rejoiced greatly in the Holy Spirit."

If true, does this mean Matthew, who witnessed and also recorded the event (Matthew 11:225-27), had "the gift of interpretation"?

Or were there other disciples Luke interviewed and told the event, did they have the gift of interpretation? [Of course I can anticipate justification by claiming Luke received this thought from the Holy Spirit]

I will suggest a claim Luke 10:21 is an example of Jesus speaking in tongues is more of reading into the passage a personal bias rather than such an example.

Although the thought might parallel Paul's thought he would "sing in tongues" (1 Corinthians 14:15), and according to Paul's instructions, Jesus' praising God in tongues would only edify Himself and not necessarily those hearing Him rejoice. And if He did, we might assume the disciples at this time were unbelievers (! Corinthians 14:22).

{I have also read where some believe Mark 5:41, when Jesus addressed the little girl with "Talitha kum!", He addressed her in tongues, when Mark simply captures the Aramaic tongue. The same claim for Jesus' words on the Cross: Eloi, Eloi, lama sabachthani" (Mark 15:34), again Aramaic.}
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3/20/16 10:31 pm


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Post Quiet Wyatt
I would also have to wonder what would be the point of Jesus, God manifest in the flesh, speaking in tongues. [Insert Acts Pun Here]
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3/20/16 10:32 pm


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Post diakoneo
I heard a preacher one time say that Christ was speaking in tongues on the cross. I know none of you have heard that before, though? Golf Cart Mafia Consigliere
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3/20/16 10:39 pm


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Post Re: QW Old Time Country Preacher
maqqebet wrote:
I have also read where some believe Mark 5:41, when Jesus addressed the little girl with "Talitha kum!", He addressed her in tongues, when Mark simply captures the Aramaic tongue. The same claim for Jesus' words on the Cross: Eloi, Eloi, lama sabachthani" (Mark 15:34), again Aramaic[/i].


I have heard COG preachers preach this, Maq. It is sad.

I also read where Juanita Bynum was typing in tongues (no I'm not kidding).
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3/20/16 10:42 pm


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Post Quiet Wyatt
To my understanding, tongues is the ONLY gift of the Spirit in Scripture which is exclusively manifested under the New Covenant. All the other gifts were already active under the Law of Moses. Jesus was born, lived and died under the Law/Old Covenant. The New Covenant was not in force until He had died for the sins of the world and was resurrected. [Insert Acts Pun Here]
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3/20/16 11:13 pm


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Post mytimewillcome
Quiet Wyatt wrote:
To my understanding, tongues is the ONLY gift of the Spirit in Scripture which is exclusively manifested under the New Covenant. All the other gifts were already active under the Law of Moses. Jesus was born, lived and died under the Law/Old Covenant. The New Covenant was not in force until He had died for the sins of the world and was resurrected.


I offered my source. Care to share what yours is when saying "To my understanding..."?
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3/21/16 1:11 am


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Post Quiet Wyatt
mytimewillcome wrote:
Quiet Wyatt wrote:
To my understanding, tongues is the ONLY gift of the Spirit in Scripture which is exclusively manifested under the New Covenant. All the other gifts were already active under the Law of Moses. Jesus was born, lived and died under the Law/Old Covenant. The New Covenant was not in force until He had died for the sins of the world and was resurrected.


I offered my source. Care to share what yours is when saying "To my understanding..."?


My source for the above understanding is my own study of the Bible. I do not recall ever reading it in a commentary or theology book, though I have read many of both.
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3/21/16 6:06 am


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Post Cojak
mytimewillcome wrote:
...
Why do we pray in tongues if we, like Jesus, have a hot line as well?


But His hot line is DIRECT and I think much better than ours. Even though I am a child of God, I can't imagine having the access the only begotten SON had. Just MO of course. Smile
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3/21/16 8:49 am


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Post Re: Did Jesus speak in tongues? diakoneo
Tom Sterbens wrote:
mytimewillcome wrote:
What say ye?

Scholar/author Robert P. Menzies in Speaking in Tongues suggests Luke 10:21 is an example.

That being said, it seems if Jesus would have spoken in tongues Luke would have been definitively clear about it in no uncertain terms and would have offered associated or corroborating language.



Yes and all the Apostles (possibly Mark also)going through the upper room experience, all the gospels written post pentecost, if He spoke in tongues at any time I could not imagine them NOT mentioning that!
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3/21/16 9:41 am


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Post Yes, I believe Jesus did.... Aaron Scott
Consider that when Jesus was on the cross--and in other instances--every word He said needed to be interpreted...yet only key phrases were interpreted. All His words were such as readers could not understand without translation/interpretation...so why the special emphasis on certain very key phrases?

I say tongues. Of course I do not believe it adds anything at all to notions of the trinity. Why, by the way, is OTCP so determined to show Jesus did not speak in tongues? Did a WOF teacher make the claim and OTCP feel it necessary to contradict? Wink
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3/22/16 2:00 am


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Post I say it again... tryingtofitin
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3/22/16 5:00 am


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